1. Which of the following factors account for the interest
in organizational management?
a) Quality
improvements
b) Current
problems/opportunities
c) Inventory
costs
d) Customer
satisfaction
e) All of
the above
2. Operations management is defined as the design,
operation, and improvement of the systems that create and deliver the firm’s
primary products and services.
a) True
b) False
3. What is one reason for failure in project scheduling?
a) Inadequate
training
b) Incomplete
project
c) Lack of
diversity in team members
d) Lack of
management support
e) Chaos
theory
4. _______________ can be defined as planning, directing,
and controlling resrouces to meet technical, cost, and time constraints.
a) Configuration
management
b) Process
analysis
c) Project
management
d) Process
improvement
e) Riddle’s
law
5. The radical change paradigm, introduced by Michael Hammer
and major consulting firms, is referred to as:
a) Total
quality management
b) Synchonous
manufacturing
c) Electronic
enterprise
d) Manufacturing
strategy paradigm
e) Business
process reengineering
6. A company that can offer on-site repair in only 1 or 2
hours is an example of a company that is competing on ______________
competitive dimension.
a) Flexibility
b) Process
quality
c) Coping
with changes in demand
d) Deliver
reliability
e) Delivery
speed.
7. The main objectives of manufacturing strategy are:
a) Translating
required competitive dimensions into specific performance requirements for
operations.
b) Making
the necessary plans to assure that operations capabilities are sufficient to
accomplish performance requirements.
c) Converting
order winners into specific performance requirements
d) All of
the above
e) Both A
and B only
8. A resource that limits the capacity for maximum output of
a process is a:
a) Block
b) Starve
c) Bottleneck
d) Process
improvement
e) None of
the above
9. Quality function deployment is a tool used to identify:
a) Customer
requirements
b) Process
improvements
c) Quality
d) Cost
factors
e) Lead time
issues
10. _____________ is the philosophy of continually seeking
improvements in a process through the use of team efforts.
a) Continuous
improvement
b) Quality
control
c) Performance
quality
d) Existentialism
e) Conformance
quality
11. What is the inherent value of a product in the market
place?
a) Conformance
quality
b) Performance
quality
c) Six Sigms
d) Cost
e) Design
quality
12. ________________ is managing the entire organization so
that it excels on all dimensions or product and services that are important to
the customer.
a) TQM
b) SRC
c) Six Sigma
d) Cost
e) Design
quality
13. Manufacturing is involved in what phases of the product
design process?
a) Concept
Development
b) Production
ramp-up
c) Initial
Planning
d) Concept
Development
e) All of
the above
14. ________________ is when the activities in the stage must
stop because there is no place to deposit the item just completed.
a) Buffering
b) Blocking
c) Starving
d) Bottleneck
e) None of
the above
15. Delay of the process step that differentiates a product
as late in the supply chain as possible is called:
a) Delayed
delivery
b) Design
logistics
c) Fast
tracking
d) Mass
customization
e) Process
postponement
16. ____________ is a measure a firm can use to determine
how close it is to its best operating level.
a) Capacity
efficiency rate
b) Economic
scope
c) Average
aggregation rate
d) Capacity
utilization rate
e) All of
the above
17. Variability in demand magnified as we move from the
customer to the producer in the supply chain is called:
a) Cause and
effect
b) Push
system
c) Bull Whip
effect
d) Pull
system
e) None of
the above
18. The seven elements that address the elimination of waste
include all of the following except:
a) Group
Technology
b) Uniform
plan loading
c) Minimize
set up
d) Quality
at the source
e) Large
Batch Process
19. Supply chain strategy concepts are applicable to what
types of companies?
a) Manufacturing
b) Services
c) Restaurants
d) Airlines
e) All of
the above
20. Consider the following data from a company annual
report:
Sales 1,000,000
Cost of Goods Sold 800,000
Raw Materials Inventory 100,000
Finished Goods Inventory 75,000
Work-in-process 25,000
The inventory turnover rate for this company is:
a) 4. 0
b) 8.0
c) 10.67
d) 32
e) 2.0
21. Which of the following is not true about JIT systems?
a) The JIT
system is based on the philosophy of eliminating waste and utilizing the full
capacity of the worker.
b) Under JIT
the ideal lost size is one.
c) JIT is
typically applied to repetitive manufacturing
d) The goal
of JIT is to drive all inventory queues to a moderate level thus minimizing
inventory investment and shortening lead times.
e) All of
the above statements are true.
22. ____________ is a type of forecast in which data related
to past demand are used to predict the future.
a) Collaborative
forecasting
b) Past
causal relationships
c) Linear
regression forecasting
d) Focus
forecasting
e) Time
series anlysis
23. The aggregate operations plan is concerned with setting
production rates by product group or other broad categories for the
intermediate team.
a) True
b) False
24. A simple inventory system includes:
a) Optimal
replenishment, Two-bin, order point
b) Order
points, Two-bin, One-bin
c) Optimal
replenishment, Two-bin, One-bin
d) MRP,
Two-bin, One-bin
e) Optimal
replenishment, order point, One-bin
25. The bill of material contains all of the following
except:
a) Complete
product description
b) Listing
of materials
c) Listing
of components
d) Sequence
in which the product is created
e) Transaction
files
26. Which of the following statements are true about
time-series forecasting?
a) Time
series analysis is based on the idea that the history of occurrences over time
can be used to predict the future.
b) Time
series analysis tries to understand the system underlying and surrounding the
item being forecast.
c) Under
time-series methods, demand is divided into the time-based components such as
daily, weekly, etc.
d) Time
series methods are useful for long-range forecasts when the demand pattern is
erratic.
e) A, B, and
C.
27. Given that the previous forecast of 65 turned out to be
four units less than the actual demand and next forecast is 66, what would be
the value of alpha if the simple exponential smoothing forecast method is used?
a) 0.02
b) 0.4
c) 0.04
d) 0.25
e) None of
the above
28. Which MRP system input element specifies how many and
when the firm plans to build each end item?
a) Inventory
records file
b) Bills of
material
c) Master
production schedule
d) Capacity
planning
e) None of
the above
29. Fundamental MRP II questions include all of the
following except:
a) What are
we going to make?
b) What does
it take to make it?
c) What do
we have?
d) What do
we have to get?
e) Who needs
it?
30. A bottleneck is defined as any resource whose capacity
limits throughput in the production line.
a) True
b) False
31. Disadvantages of capacity simulation include all of the
following except:
a) Simulation
can be used as a game for training experience.
b) A
significant amount of computer time may be needed to run complex models.
c) A great
deal of time and effort typically is spent to develop a model for the
simulation.
d) The
technique of the simulation, while making progress, still lacks a standardized
approach.
e) Still
require work in process when used with Kanban.
32. JIT drawbacks include all of the following except:
a) Limited
to repetitive manufacturing
b) Stable
production level
c) Limited
flexibility in products produced
d) Vendors
do not need to be located nearby
e) Still
require work in process when used with Kanban.
33. A _________approach actually schedules in detail each
resource using the setup and runtime required for each order.
a) Infinite
loading
b) Finite
loading
c) Forward
scheduling
d) Backward
scheduling
e) None of
the above
34. Johnson’s rule is a sequencing rule used for scheduling
any number of jobs on two machines.
a) True
b) False
35. If there is a no bottleneck, then excess capacity exists
and the system should be changed to create a bottleneck.
a) True
b) False
