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Q1The source’s view of the destination of the communication is a communication microbarrier.
a. true
b. false

Q2. Influencing is often referred to as the fundamental management skill.
a. true
b. false

Q3. The increasing need for information in today’s society is a communication microbarrier.
a. true
b. false

Q4. Managers can use grapevines advantageously to maximize information flow to employees.
a. true
b. false

Q5. Organizational communication that follows the line of the organization chart is called informal organizational communication.
a. true
b. false

Q6. Verbal communication is the sharing of information without using words to encode thoughts.
a. true
b. false

Q7. Successful communication refers to an interpersonal communication situation in which the information the source intends to share with the destination, and the meaning the destination derives from the transmitted message are the same.
a. true
b. false

Q8. With the gossip grapevine, one individual typically informs everyone else on the grapevine.
a. true
b. false

Q9. Which of the following would be considered a nonverbal form of communication?
a. a written performance appraisal
b. the tone of the voice
c. a teleconference
d. an e-mail
e. a written policy

Q10. Which of the following is a communication macrobarrier?
a. message interference
b. words with multiple meanings
c. perception
d. need for increasingly complex information
e. noise

Q11. Formal organizational communication can be increased if managers listen attentively to messages that come through formal channels.
a. true
b. false

Q12. The gossip grapevine tends to distort messages more than any other grapevine pattern.
a. true
b. false

Q13. One strategy for encouraging formal organizational communication is to ensure that all organization members have free access to formal communication channels.
a. true
b. false

Q14. The situational approach was the earliest of theories about what makes leaders effective.
a. true
b. false

Q15. Transformational leaders raise followers’ levels of awareness of organizational issues and their consequences.
a. true
b. false

Q16. Leaders in modern organizations have been confronting many situations rarely encountered by organizational leaders of the past.
a. true
b. false

Q17. Boss-centered leadership behaviors are more autocratic, and subordinate-centered leader behaviors are more democratic.
a. true
b. false

Q18. Under which leadership theory does the leader inspire organizational success by profoundly affecting followers’ beliefs in what an organization should be, as well as their values, such as justice and integrity?
a. transformational leadership
b. path-goal leadership
c. entrepreneurial leadership
d. superleadership
e. situational leadership

Q19. Which of the following is a situational leadership theory?
a. the Michigan Studies
b. path-goal theory
c. the Ohio State studies
d. superleadership
e. the trait approach

Q20. According to the contingency theory of leadership, ________ is the degree to which the goals and other situational factors are outlined clearly.
a. Transformational leadership
b. Positive power
c. Leader-member relations
d. Task structure

Q21. A considerate leader would be more effective than a structuring leader when the leader-member relations are good, the task structure is weak, and the leader position power is weak.
a. true
b. false

Q22. Leader flexibility is the ability of the leaders to change leadership styles.
a. true
b. false

Q23. The Vroom-Yetton-Jago Model of leadership provides that subordinates should accept and be committed to organizational decisions that are made.
a. true
b. false

Q24. Contemporary management writers and practitioners generally agree leadership ability cannot be explained by an individual’s traits or inherited characteristics.
a. true
b. false

Q25. Which approach to leadership views the personal characteristics of an individual as the main determinants of how successful that individual could be as a leader?
a. characteristic approach
b. situational approach
c. subordinate-centered approach
d. behavior approach
e. trait approach

Q26. The coaching leader identifies inappropriate behavior in followers and suggests how they might correct that behavior.
a. true
b. false

Q27. Intrinsic rewards are rewards that come directly from performing a task.
a. true
b. false

Q28. Activities based on Theory Y assumptions are more apt to motivate organization members than are activities based on Theory X assumptions.
a. true
b. false

Q29. McGregor implies that managers who use Theory X assumptions are ‘good’ and those who use Theory Y assumptions are ‘bad’.
a. true
b. false

Q30. The only real difference between Maslow and Alderfer is that Maslow identified three levels of needs and Alderfer identified five.
a. true
b. false

Q31. A firm may be able to increase employee commitment and motivation by simply developing a policy of attempting to hire from within the organization prior to going to outside sources.
a. true
b. false

Q32. Which of the following motivation theories focuses on the personal and natural development of people to explain human needs?
a. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
b. McClelland’s Acquired Needs Theory
c. Alderfer’s ERG Theory
d. Argyris’ Maturity-Immaturity Continuum
e. The Vroom Expectancy Theory

Q33. Which theory is a set of essentially positive assumptions about human nature?
a. Equity Theory
b. Theory Z
c. Theory Y
d. Theory X
e. Expectancy Theory

Q34. Alderfer’s ERG Theory categorizes three basic categories of needs as Existence, Relatedness, and Goals.
a. true
b. false

Q35. Managers should look upon Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs more as a subjective statement rather than an objective statement of human needs.
a. true
b. false

Q36. According to the Needs-Goal Theory of Motivation, motivation begins with an individual feeling a need.
a. true
b. false

Q37. According to equity theory, everyone who feels treated unfairly at work will seek other employment.
a. true
b. false

Q38. ________ involves negative assumptions about people that McGregor believes managers often use as a basis for dealing with their subordinates.
a. Theory Z
b. Theory Y
c. Theory X
d. Job Design

Q39. A working team is an organizational team set up to help eliminate a specified problem within the organization.
a. true
b. false

Q40. According to Homans’ Model, the informal group is established to provide satisfaction and growth for its members.
a. true
b. false

Q41. A task group is a formal group outlined in the chain of command on an organization chart.
a. true
b. false

Q42. Self-managed work teams developed in the ________.
a. 1990s
b. 1960s
c. 1980s
d. 1970s

Q43. Which of the following is an analytical tool that can be used to determine what informal groups exists in an organization and who the members of those groups are?
a. sociogram
b. social diagram
c. reciprocity diagram
d. PERT
e. sociometry

Q44. The larger the organization, the less the probability committees will be used on a regular basis.
a. true
b. false

Q45. The procedure for conducting a sociometric analysis in an organization is to simply ask various organization members to name several other organization members with whom they would like to spend free time.
a. true
b. false

Q46. The stage of formal group development in which group members attempt to maximize the group’s success by matching individual abilities with group activities by assisting one another is the group control stage.
a. true
b. false

Q47. Good managers constantly try to help groups become teams.
a. true
b. false

Q48. A people-related step in building an effective team is setting stable goals and priorities for the team.
a. true
b. false

Q49. Which stage of team development is characterized by conflict and disagreement as team members try to clarify their individual roles and challenge the way the team functions?
a. performing
b. forming
c. adjourning
d. norming
e. storming

Q50. Which of the following would be an example of a task group?
a. a group meeting to consider the feasibility of a new product
b. a self-managed work group
c. a quarterly planning group
d. an informal group
e. a group meeting to prepare the monthly financial reports

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