10. An experimenter has some degree of control over the:
a. independent variable.
b. correlative variable.
c. history effect.
d. All of the above, if the experiment is conducted properly.
11. If a researcher wants to answer the question: “Will adult women (ages 25-49) use more of a cooking oil when it is in a full container or a half-empty one?”, the best type of study to use would be a(n):
a. descriptive study.
b. experimental study.
c. exploratory study.
d. focus group study.
12. In a human resources training study, “manager turnover” is most likely to be a(n):
a. independent variable.
b. dependent variable.
c. control group variable.
d. random assignment variable.
13. In terms of internal validity, a large layoff of middle-level managers during a research study would have what type of extraneous variable?
a. History
b. Maturation
c. Testing
d. Instrumentation
14. The after-only with control group design eliminates the problems of:
a. selection bias and mortality.
b. mortality and testing.
c. testing and instrumentation.
d. selection bias and testing.
15. An experiment that investigates long-term structural change is:
a. the static group design.
b. the Solomon four-group design.
c. a time series design.
d. a Latin square design.
16. An experimental researcher manipulated advertising (high versus low) and price (high versus low). When advertising was high and price was high there was not much of an influence on sales volume, but when advertising was high and price was low, there was a great influence on sales volume. This indicates:
a. a main effect for advertising.
b. a main effect for price.
c. an interaction effect.
d. a factorial effect.
17. Employee turnover during a research study has the most effect on which of the following factors which affect the internal validity of the study?
a. Mortality
b. Testing
c. Instrumentation
d. History
18. If the researcher is attempting to answer the question: “Will the test market results in Kansas City hold true in California?”, the researcher is most concerned with:
a. the history effect.
b. internal validity.
c. external validity.
d. mortality.
19. When a prior measurement affects a test unit’s response to the experiment, we might say that __________ occurs.
a. testing effect
b. sensitizing
c. prioritizing
d. maturation
20. The characteristic that differentiates true experimental design from quasi-experimental design is:
a. the use of a control group.
b. random assignment of subjects to experimental groups.
c. multiple observations.
d. all of the above.
21. From the standpoint of the Bureau of Labor Statistics, the term “labor force” is a(n):
a. rule of measurement.
b. concept.
c. interval scale.
d. invalid attribute.
22. A company’s Human Resources department distributes a survey which asks employees to rate their current benefits as “excellent,” “good,” “fair,” or “poor.” This is an example of a(n):
a. nominal scale.
b. interval scale.
c. ratio scale.
d. ordinal scale.
23. When a supervisor is asked to rate each of his subordinates on a 5-point scale where 1 (one) means that the worker is unsatisfactory and 5 means that the worker is exceptional, this is an example of which type of scale?
a. Ratio scale
b. Interval scale
c. Ordinal scale
d. Nominal scale
24. “Dollars” represents which type of scale?
a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval scale
d. Ratio scale
25. Which of the following statements about an interval scale is FALSE?
a. It has the properties of an ordinal scale.
b. It uniquely classifies by providing numbers that serve as labels for identification.
c. It has an absolute zero point.
d. It has the properties of a nominal scale.
26. The statement “our brand has a 20 percent market share,” implies __________ data.
a. nominal
b. ordinal
c. interval
d. ratio
27. Calculating the mean is permissable for _____ or _____ scales, but is not permissable for _____ or _____ scales.
a. interval; nominal; ordinal; ratio
b. ratio; interval; nominal; ordinal
c. ordinal; interval; ratio; nominal
d. nominal; interval; ratio; ordinal
28. When several experts say that a measure provides adequate coverage of the concept, a measure has ___________ validity.
a. concurrent
b. content
c. criterion
d. apparent
29. Which of the following is NOT a component of an attitude?
a. Affective
b. Cognitive
c. Behavioral
d. Semantic
30. In constructing a semantic differential scale
a. midpoint descriptors are used.
b. bipolar adjectives are used.
c. (n-l)/2 comparisons must be made.
d. None of the above are used.
31. What type of scale is being used in the following item?
Please tell us how satisfied you are with your purchase of your Ford Escort.
Very Very
Satisfied 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 Dissatisfied
a. Likert
b. Semantic differential
c. Comparative rating
d. Numerical
32. What type of scale is being used when a company asks its managers to distribute their benefits so that they add up to 50 points using the following scale
____ Dental plan
____ Retirement plan
____ Health care plan
____ Child care plan
a. Likert scale
b. Semantic differential scale
c. Constant sum scale
d. Ranking scale
33. What type of question is the following:
Name four brands of automobile tires that you would consider purchasing if you were in the market for a new set of tires for your car?
a. Leading question
b. Loaded question
c. Fixed-alternative question
d. Open-ended question
34. When respondents believe that past events happened more recently than they actually did, this is called __________.
a. squishing.
b. funnel technique.
c. frequency determination.
d. telescoping.
35. The formal, objective measurement and appraisal of the extent to which a given action, activity, or program has achieved its objectives is called:
a. basic research.
b. evaluation research.
c. scientific research.
d. applied research.
36. The Pure/Basic research is research that:
a. addresses simple issues that are basic and research is not really needed.
b. attempts to expand the limits of knowledge for a discipline.
c. is conducted to make a decision about a specific real life problem.
d. all of the above
37. Which statement best describes the nature of basic research?
a. Basic research requires the use of experimentation.
b. The primary purpose of basic research is to facilitate the managerial decision process.
c. Basic research is conducted to verify the acceptability of a given theory.
d. Because basic research is exploratory, it does not require the use of scientific methodology.
38. When Colgate-Palmolive Co. tracks the sale of its health and beauty aids in discount stores by utilizing the information provided by scanners at the checkout lines, this is an example of which type of research?
a. Basic research
b. Performance-monitoring research
c. Pure research
d. Intuitive research
39. The term __________ research describes research that regularly, perhaps routinely, provides feedback for evaluation and control of business activity.
a. decision support
b. performance-monitoring
c. causal
d. analysis
40. When Ford Motor Co. brings together representatives from R&D, Finance, Marketing, Sales, and Marketing Research to work together on the design of a new type of automobile, this is an example of the use of
a. basic research.
b. pure research.
c. cross-functional teams.
d. evaluation research.
41. Which type of research study is attempting to answer the question “Would members of this target market be interested in purchasing this new type of product?”
a.
Descriptive research
b.
Causal research
c.
Exploratory research
d.
Definitive research
42. If we want to clarify the nature of problems, we would conduct __________ research.
a. clarification
b. exploratory
c. descriptive
d. causal
43. The text presents the following quote from the book Zen and the Art of Motorcycle
Maintenance: “In Part One of formal scientific method…the main skill is in stating absolutely no more than you are positive you know.” This describes which step in applying the scientific method?
a .Analysis and evaluation of data
b. Providing explanation and stating new problems raised by the research
c. Assessment of relevant existing knowledge
d. Designing the research to test the hypothesis
44. When comparing the typical door-to-door personal interview with the typical mail survey, personal interviews are more appropriately described by each of these characteristics EXCEPT
a. greater speed of data collection.
b. higher respondent cooperation.
c. higher possibility of respondent misunderstanding.
d. greater versatility of question format (questioning).
45. Which of the following statements conceding the participation rate for personal interviews, compared to mail surveys, is FALSE?
a. The presence of an interviewer generally increases the percentage of people willing to respond.
b. Hispanics, regardless of education, frequently prefer oral to written communication.
c. Certain groups, such as older, retired persons, are often over-represented.
d. Type of residential unit, such as high security apartment buildings, usually has a positive impact on response rates.
46. If 400 people are mailed a questionnaire and 120 of them return it to the researcher, this survey is said to have a response rate of
a. 120.
b. 3.33.
c. 30 percent.
d. 400.
47. Which of the following survey methods typically ranks HIGHEST on standardization of questioning?
a. Personal
b. Mail
c. Telephone
d. All rank about the same
48. The type of survey method which typically ranks highest on response rates is
a. Personal.
b. Mail.
c. Telephone.
d. All rank about the same.
49. If 800 people are mailed a survey and 230 of them return it to the researcher, the survey is said to have a response rate of
a. 230.
b. 800.
c. 3.48.
d. 28.8 percent.
50. A researcher who is investigating consumer reactions to a videotape of a proposed television commercial is most likely to use
a. telephone interviews.
b. door-to-door interviews.
c. mall intercept interviews.
d. self-administered questionnaires.
51. When comparing telephone interviews to door-to-door personal interviews, telephone interviews are more appropriately described by each of these characteristics EXCEPT
a. faster speed of data collection.
b. greater geographic flexibility.
c. lower possibility for respondent misunderstanding.
d. easier call-back or follow-up.
52. Which of the following should be included in the cover letter of a mail survey?
a. Assurance of confidentiality of the data
b. An incentive for participation in the study
c. Assurance that the survey will only take a few minutes
d. A description of how the individual was selected to participate
53. The following question:
Should Lord & Taylor continue its excellent gift wrapping program?
____Yes ____ No
a. is a double-barreled question.
b. has a built-in assumption.
c. is a counterbiasing statement.
d. all of the above.
54. A questionnaire is said to be __________ if no unnecessary information is collected and if the information needed to solve the business problem is obtained.
a. complete
b. relevant
c. finished
d. correct
55. What type of question is the following?
Did you make any local or long-distance calls from your home last week?
____ yes ____ no
a. Double-barreled
b. Leading
c. Loaded
d. Funnel
56. Open-ended questions:
a. make good introductory questions during an interview.
b. limit the range of choices available to respondents.
c. increase interviewer bias.
d. require little respondent effort.
57. What type of question is the following?
Do you agree or disagree with this statement: “The recession is caused by inflation and unemployment.”
a. Leading
b. Misleading
c. Double-barreled
d. Checklist
58. When using the Internet, if you need to click beside either a “Yes” or a “No” response to fill in the circle that is next to one of these choices to indicate your answer to the question, this type of prompt is called:
a. a split-ballot prompt.
b. a radio button.
c. a check list button.
d. a complex choice button.
59. In developing a questionnaire, which of the following is NOT a useful guideline:
a. avoid loaded questions.
b. be as general as possible.
c. avoid double-barreled items.
d. use simple, conversational language.
60. Quota sampling
a. involves taking a stratified sample in which the number of sampling units drawn from each stratum is in proportion to the relative population size of that stratum.
b. ensures that certain characteristics of a population sample will be represented to the exact extent that the researcher desires.
c. obtains units or people who are most conveniently available.
d. selects an initial starting point by a random process, and then selects every nth number on the list.
61. Secondary sampling units are
a. units selected during preliminary stages of testing.
b. units that are weeded out due to random sampling error.
c. units selected in the second stage of sampling.
d. samples that consist of inanimate objects only, rather than people.
62. A disproportional stratified sample
a. involves taking a stratified sample in which the number of sampling units drawn from each stratum is in proportion to the relative population size of that stratum.
b. is a stratified sample in which the sample size for each stratum is allocated according to analytical considerations.
c. obtains units or people who are most conveniently available.
d. selects an initial starting point by a random process, and then selects every nth number on the list.
63. If we are experimenting with different forms of advertising copy appeals, the
dependent variable might be defined as:
a. a measure of advertising awareness.
b. recall.
c. change in brand preference.
d. any of these.
64. If, during the course of an experiment, subjects change in some way that will have an impact on the experimental results, the effect is referred to as:
a. history.
b. maturation.
c. selection.
d. mortality.
65. In a test marketing study of a new type of instant tea, sales volume (as measured by dollar sales) is most likely to be a(n):
a. Random variable.
b. Independent variable.
c. Control variable.
d. Dependent variable.
66. In a test marketing study, initial trial purchase is most likely to be a(n):
a. independent variable.
b. control variable.
c. dependent variable.
d. external variable
67. If the interviewers are changed during a research study, this would have what type of effect on the extraneous variables?
a. Testing effect
b. History effect
c. Selection bias
d. Instrumentation
68. An automobile dealer, after a very cold winter, found himself with a very large
inventory. He experimented with offering a free trip to Chicago (X) with every car sold. He recorded sales (O) after the promotion. This is an example of:
a. an after only design.
b. before-after design.
c. control design.
d. a completely randomized design.
69. A researcher uses a cartoon drawing to which the respondent suggests dialogue that the cartoon characters might speak. This is an example of:
a. a focus group.
b. sentence completion.
c. thematic apperception testing.
d. None of these
70. Focus groups of employees:
a. should always be led by co-workers.
b. should include employees with their supervisors in the same group.
c. can be a valuable technique for improving a company’s operations.
d. Should be saving lot of time
71. With respect to research design:
a. case studies may be used in both descriptive and exploratory research.
b. experimentation may be used in exploratory research.
c. case studies may be used in both descriptive research and experimentation.
d. descriptive research may be categorized as either conclusive research or experimentation.
72. In which of the following situations would an exploratory study NOT be appropriate?
a. Analyzing selected causes or cases
b. Conversations with individuals who have relevant information
c. Defining relationships so that hypotheses may be formulated
d. Measuring a brand’s share of the market
73. As experiments _____ in naturalism, they approach pure _____ experiments, and as they become _____ artificial, they approach _____ experiments.
a. increase; field; less; laboratory
b. decrease; field; less; laboratory
c. increase; field; more; laboratory
d. decrease; field; more; laboratory
74. Consider the following question:
“If you own your own home, what is its approximate value?”
Under $50,000
$50,000 – $70,000
$70,000 – $100,000
$100,000 – $150,000
Which of the following is NOT a valid criticism?
a. Categories are not mutually exclusive.
b. List of alternatives is not collectively exhaustive.
c. Two questions are being asked as one.
d. All are valid criticisms.
75. Calculate the sample mean using the following data:
X
4
5
2
6
4
3
4
The mean is:
a. 7.0
b. 3.0
c. 4.0
d. none of the above
76. Calculate the sample standard deviation using the following data:
X
4
5
2
6
The sample standard deviation is approximately:
a. 0.84.
b. 1.71.
c. 2.25.
d. none of the above.
77. Calculate the standard deviation using the following data:
X
6
4
3
2
The standard deviation is:
a. 0.84.
b. 1.25.
c. 1.71.
d. none of the above.
78. In attempting to estimate the amount of money which members of a target market segment spend yearly on toothpaste, a researcher wants to use a Z-value of 1.96 and an error of $0.50. If past research studies have found that the standard deviation for this type of study on this target market segment has been approximately $2.34, approximately what sample size should the researcher use in this study?
a. 123
b. 64
c. 85
d. None of the above
79. If p = .40 for a sample size of 100, the standard error of the proportion is approximately:
a. 0.05.
b. 0.03.
c. 0.07.
d. none of the above.
80. In a percentage cross-tabulation, the total number of respondents or observations may be used as a(n) __________ for computing the percentage in each cell.
a. index
b. base
c. centroid
d. none of the above
81. Which of the following statements about descriptive analysis is FALSE?
a. For most projects, statistical analysis begins by reducing the raw data into a summary format.
b. Tabulation refers to the orderly arrangement of data in a table or other summary format.
c. Analyzing results by groups or categories is the technique of tabulation.
d. A frequency table is the arrangement of statistical data in a row and column format.
82. A Type II error is caused by failing to reject the __________ when the __________ is true.
a. alternative hypothesis; null hypothesis
b. significance level; hypothesis
c. Type I error; hypothesis
d. null hypothesis; alternative hypothesis
83. If the t-statistic produces a value for t of 2.56 when the critical value of t is 1.96, the decision should be:
a. to accept the null hypothesis.
b. to accept both the null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis.
c. to reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesis.
d. to reject both the null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis.
84. If the observed value of t is 1.54 when the critical value of t is 1.96, the decision should be:
a. to reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesis.
b. to accept both the null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis.
c. to reject both the null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis.
d. to accept the null hypothesis.
85. When the means of more than two groups or populations are to be compared on one independent variable, __________ is the appropriate statistical tool.
a. the t-test
b. two-way ANOVA
c. one-way analysis of variance
d. a pooled estimate of the standard error
86. The greater the value of F
a. the greater the sample size.
b. the greater the total variation.
c. the greater the probability of accepting the null hypothesis.
d. the greater the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis.
87. The F-test is frequently used in conjunction with
a. chi-square analysis.
b. analysis of variance.
c. t-test of three means.
d. Z-test of three proportions.
88. When the data relating to two variables are simultaneously tabulated by categories, the simplest procedure to use is
a. ANOVA.
b. regression.
c. correlation.
d. cross-tabulation.
89. The formula below represents the method for calculating the ______ .
a. Z-test.
b. F-test.
c. Chi-square test.
d. none of the above.
90. In the formula Y = a + X, X represents:
a. the independent variable.
b. the dependent variable.
c. the slope coefficient.
d. the Y-intercept.
91. The case study method has several distinct advantages over other methods of
descriptive research. Which of the following is NOT one of those advantages?
a. Data are often more accurate because of more intimate association between researcher and respondent.
b. It provides a description of a real situation.
c. It is an objective tool for observing and recording.
d. It gives an in depth details of a subject unit
92. One of the following research methods differs from other methods because it gives the researcher a high degree of control over the research situation. Which is it?
a. Surveys
b. Experiments
c. Observation studies
d. Secondary data studies
93. Basic research is research that:
a. addresses simple issues that are basic and research is not really needed.
b. attempts to expand the limits of knowledge for a discipline.
c. is conducted to make a decision about a specific real life problem.
d. all of the above
94. Which statement best describes the nature of basic research?
a. Basic research requires the use of experimentation.
b. The primary purpose of basic research is to facilitate the managerial decision process.
c. Basic research is conducted to verify the acceptability of a given theory.
d. Because basic research is exploratory, it does not require the use of scientific methodology.
95. When a marketing manager makes an important decision because there is not sufficient time to conduct a research project, this is an example of:
a. a situation in which the value of the research exceeds its costs.
b. the nature of the type of decision (tactical or strategic) that must be made.
c. a time constraint.
d. the availability of data.
96. Which of the following is an example of a major topic for business research?
a. A buyer behavior research study
b. A job morale study
c. A market segmentation study
d. All of these
97. When Ford Motor Co. brings together representatives from R&D, Finance, Marketing, Sales, and Marketing Research to work together on the design of a new type of automobile, this is an example of the use of
a. basic research.
b. pure research.
c. cross-functional teams.
d. evaluation research.
98. Whether business research should be conducted is determined by each of the following EXCEPT:
a. employees’ attitudes toward the subject of the research.
b. time constraints.
c. the nature of the decision to be made.
d. the benefits of the research in relation to its costs.
99. A pilot study is
a. an extremely rigorous research design involving formal methods for collecting data.
b. a small-scale exploratory research technique that uses informal data collection methods.
c. a good example of backward linkage.
d. always the best way to approach business research situations.
100. The four research design techniques for descriptive and causal research are
a. focus groups, surveys, pilot studies, and experiments.
b. focus groups, surveys, experiments, and observation.
c. secondary data studies, surveys, experiments, and observation.
d. secondary data, focus groups, surveys, and experiments.
101. Relative to the decision-making process, at what point should business research enter the process?
a. Problem discovery and definition
b. Alternative formulation
c. Evaluation of alternatives
d. Implementation
102. Any procedure that uses a small number of items or people to make a conclusion regarding a larger group known as the population is called
a. statistics.
b. sampling.
c. surveying.
d. probability theory.
103. Which type of research study is attempting to answer the question “Which of two sales training programs is more effective?”
a. Exploratory
b. Descriptive
c. Causal
d. Mall-intercept
104. If the research problem were defined as “Will buyers purchase more of the product in a red or blue colored package?”, the most appropriate type of research would be
a. exploratory.
b. descriptive.
c. causal.
d. associative.
105. To be most useful, how should research objectives be stated?
a. They should be stated as broadly as possible to permit flexibility in applying the research.
b. They should be stated as precisely as possible to avoid misapplying the research.
c. Usually it makes little difference whether they are broadly or precisely stated as long as the objective is clear.
d. Most research does not need a stated objective because the nature of the problem implies the objective.
106. The appropriate research strategy to determine the demographic characteristics of owners of Ford Explorer SUVs would be
a. descriptive design.
b. exploratory design.
c. simulation.
d. field experiment.
107. Research designs may be categorized according to their fundamental objective. Which of the following are research design categories?
a. scientific, exploratory, descriptive
b. descriptive, research, experimental
c. descriptive, causal, exploratory
d. experimental, experience, exploratory
108. Which of the following is designed to develop ideas and insights in decision-making situations, especially when only limited knowledge is currently available?
a. Secondary research
b. Experimental research
c. Survey research
d. Exploratory research
109. Which of the following is an advantage of secondary data as compared with primary data?
a. Obtainable from reliable suppliers
b. Usually less expensive
c. Usually available in less time
d. All of these are advantages.
110. Which of the following is NOT a step in the process of problem definition?
a. obtain permission from interested parties to research the problem
b. ascertain the decision maker’s objectives
c. understand the background of the problem
d. determine the unit of analysis
111. Hypotheses have considerable practical value in planning and designing the research because
a. they force researchers to be clear about what they expect to find through the study.
b. the formal statement raises crucial questions about required data.
c. expected relationships among variables are expressed.
d. all the statements are true.
112. High cost, lower standardization of questioning, and limited geographic dispersion are disadvantages of __________ surveys.
a. telephone
b. personal interview
c. mail
d. mall intercept
113. Who among the following are LEAST likely to respond to a mail survey?
a. Individuals interested in the general subject matter of the survey
b. People who hold extreme positions on the survey topic
c. Less educated respondents
d. Those who receive a follow-up questionnaire
114. If 400 people are mailed a questionnaire and 120 of them return it to the researcher, this survey is said to have a response rate of
a. 120.
b. 3.33.
c. 30 percent.
d. 400.
115. Which type of research study is attempting to answer the question “Which of two sales training programs is more effective?”
a. Exploratory
b. Descriptive
c. Causal
d. Mall-intercept
116. An exploratory research design would be LEAST likely to be used to
a. create a more precise formulation of a problem.
b. clarify a basic concept.
c. increase familiarization with a problem.
d. describe the characteristics of a certain group.
117. Which of the following is designed to develop ideas and insights in decision-making situations, especially when only limited knowledge is currently available?
a. Secondary research
b. Experimental research
c. Survey research
d. Exploratory research
118. Which of the following statements concerning secondary data is FALSE?
a. Secondary data sources should be considered before primary data are collected.
b. Internal secondary data are usually preferred to external secondary data.
c. Data needed to complete a research project are usually attainable as secondary data.
d. Secondary data are available from commercial sources.
119. The number of automobiles that drive over a “counter cable” in the road near a proposed site for a convenience store is an example of
a. secondary data collection.
b. exploratory research.
c. an observation study.
d. an experiment.
120. Turnover will be higher among employees who perceive themselves as underpaid, than among employees who perceive themselves as paid fairly. This sentence is an example of
a. a categorical relationship.
b. a research objective.
c. a research question.
d. a hypothesis.
121. Which of the following is NOT a step in the process of problem definition?
a. obtain permission from interested parties to research the problem
b. ascertain the decision maker’s objectives
c. understand the background of the problem
d. determine the unit of analysis
122. A survey question about gender, to be answered with either “M” or “F,” represents a(n)
a. categorical variable.
b. unknown variable.
c. dependent variable.
d. continuous variable.
123. The goal of defining the problem is
a. to state the research question clearly.
b. to have a si
