Question 1 (5 points)
The macro virus infects the key operating system files
located in a computer’s start up sector.
Question 1 options:
True
False
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Question 2 (5 points)
Which function of InfoSec Management encompasses security
personnel as well as aspects of the SETA program?
Question 2 options:
Projects
Policy
Protection
People
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Question 3 (5 points)
Which of the following is NOT a primary function of
Information Security Management?
Question 3 options:
Projects
Performance
Planning
Protection
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Question 4 (5 points)
According to the C.I.A. triad, which of the following is a
desirable characteristic for computer security?
Question 4 options:
Authentication
Authorization
Availability
Accountability
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Question 5 (5 points)
Which of the following is NOT a step in the problem-solving
process?
Question 5 options:
Gather facts and make assumptions
Select, implement and evaluate a solution
Analyze and compare possible solutions
Build support among management for the candidate solution
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Question 6 (5 points)
A worm may be able to deposit copies of itself onto all Web
servers that the infected system can reach, so that users who subsequently
visit those sites become infected.
Question 6 options:
True
False
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Question 7 (5 points)
“Shoulder spying” is used in public or semi-public
settings when individuals gather information they are not authorized to have by
looking over another individual’s shoulder or viewing the information from a
distance.
Question 7 options:
True
False
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Question 8 (5 points)
As frustrating as viruses and worms are, perhaps more time
and money is spent on resolving virus __________.
Question 8 options:
hoaxes
polymorphisms
false alarms
urban legends
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Question 9 (5 points)
The first step in solving problems is to gather facts and
make assumptions.
Question 9 options:
True
False
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Question 10 (5 points)
Blackmail threat of informational disclosure is an example
of which threat category?
Question 10 options:
Compromises of intellectual property
Espionage or trespass
Information extortion
Sabotage or vandalism
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Question 11 (5 points)
Which of the following is the best example of a rapid-onset
disaster?
Question 11 options:
Famine
Environmental degradation
Flood
Pest infestation
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Question 12 (5 points)
Which type of document grants formal permission for an
investigation to occur?
Question 12 options:
Forensic concurrence
Affidavit
Evidentiary report
Search warrant
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Question 13 (5 points)
In which contingency plan testing strategy do individuals
participate in a role-playing exercise in which the CP team is presented with a
scenario of an actual incident or disaster and expected to react as if it had
occurred?
Question 13 options:
Structured walk-through
Desk check
Parallel testing
Simulation
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Question 14 (5 points)
ISO 27014:2013 is the ISO 27000 series standard for
__________.
Question 14 options:
information security management
policy management
governance of information security
risk management
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Question 15 (5 points)
Which document must be changed when evidence changes hands
or is stored?
Question 15 options:
Affidavit
Search warrant
Evidentiary material
Chain of custody
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Question 16 (5 points)
Which of the following allows investigators to determine
what happened by examining the results of an event—criminal, natural,
intentional, or accidental?
Question 16 options:
Forensics
E-discovery
Digital malfeasance
Evidentiary procedures
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Question 17 (5 points)
Individuals who control, and are therefore responsible for,
the security and use of a particular set of information are known as
__________.
Question 17 options:
data users
data generators
data owners
data custodians
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Question 18 (5 points)
What is the final stage of the business impact analysis when
using the NIST SP 800-34 approach?
Question 18 options:
Identify resource requirements
Identify recovery priorities for system resources
Determine mission/business processes and recovery criticality
Identify business processes
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Question 19 (5 points)
Which level of planning breaks down each applicable
strategic goal into a series of incremental objectives?
Question 19 options:
Operational
Strategic
Organizational
Tactical
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Question 20 (5 points)
Which of the following has the main goal of restoring normal
modes of operation with minimal cost and disruption to normal business
activities after an adverse event?
Question 20 options:
Risk management
Contingency planning
Disaster readiness
Module 3
Business response
Question 21 (5 points)
Which of the following are instructional codes that guide
the execution of the system when information
Question 21 options:
configuration rules
user profiles
access control lists
capability tables
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Question 22 (5 points)
A detailed outline of the scope of the policy development
project is created during which phase of the SecSDLC?
Question 22 options:
Analysis
Implementation
Design
Investigation
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Question 23 (5 points)
In addition to specifying the penalties for unacceptable
behavior, what else must a policy specify?
Question 23 options:
The proper operation of equipment
What must be done to comply
Legal recourse
Appeals process
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Question 24 (5 points)
Which of the following is NOT a step in the process of
implementing training?
Question 24 options:
Motivate management and employees
Administer the program
Identify target audiences
Hire expert consultants
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Question 25 (5 points)
Which of the following is an element of the enterprise
information security policy?
Question 25 options:
Information on the structure of the InfoSec organization
Access control lists
Articulation of the organization’s SDLC methodology
Indemnification of the organization against liability
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Question 26 (5 points)
Which of the following is the most cost-effective method for
disseminating security information and news to employees?
Question 26 options:
Security-themed Web site
Distance learning seminars
Conference calls
Security newsletter
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Question 27 (5 points)
Which of the following is NOT among the three types of
InfoSec policies based on NIST’s Special Publication 800-14?
Question 27 options:
Enterprise information security policy
User-specific security policies
System-specific security policies
Issue-specific security policies
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Question 28 (5 points)
Which of the following would be responsible for configuring
firewalls and IDPSs, implementing security software, and diagnosing and
troubleshooting problems?
Question 28 options:
A security analyst
The security manager
A security technician
A security consultant
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Question 29 (5 points)
Which policy is the highest level of policy and is usually
created first?
Question 29 options:
USSP
ISSP
EISP
SysSP
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Question 30 (5 points)
Which of the following is NOT among the functions typically
performed within the InfoSec department as a compliance enforcement obligation?
Question 30 options:
Centralized authentication
Policy
Risk management
Compliance/audit
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Question 31 (5 points)
Which of the following is the primary purpose of ISO/IEC
27001:2005?
Question 31 options:
Use within an organization to ensure compliance with laws
and regulations
Use within an organization to formulate security requirements
and objectives
Implementation of business-enabling information security
To enable organizations that adopt it to obtain
certification
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Question 32 (5 points)
Which security architecture model is part of a larger series
of standards collectively referred to as the “Rainbow Series”?
Question 32 options:
Bell-LaPadula
ITSEC
TCSEC
Common Criteria
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Question 33 (5 points)
Under the Common Criteria, which term describes the
user-generated specifications for security requirements?
Question 33 options:
Security Functional Requirements (SFRs)
Security Target (ST)
Protection Profile (PP)
Target of Evaluation (ToE)
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Question 34 (5 points)
Which type of access controls can be role-based or
task-based?
Question 34 options:
Nondiscretionary
Constrained
Discretionary
Content-dependent
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Question 35 (5 points)
Which access control principle specifies that no unnecessary
access to data exists by regulating members so they can perform only the
minimum data manipulation necessary?
Question 35 options:
Need-to-know
Separation of duties
Eyes only
Least privilege
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Question 36 (5 points)
The InfoSec measurement development process recommended by
NIST is is divided into two major activities.
Which of the following is one of them?
Question 36 options:
Identification and definition of the current InfoSec program
Regularly monitor and test networks
Compare organizational practices against organizations of
similar characteristics
Maintain a vulnerability management program
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Question 37 (5 points)
Which piece of the Trusted Computing Base’s security system
manages access controls?
Question 37 options:
Trusted computing base
Verification module
Covert channel
Reference monitor
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Question 38 (5 points)
Which of the following is a possible result of failure to
establish and maintain standards of due care and due diligence?
Question 38 options:
Legal liability
Baselining
Certification revocation
Competitive disadvantage
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Question 39 (5 points)
Which access control principle limits a user’s access to the
specific information required to perform the currently assigned task?
Question 39 options:
Need-to-know
Eyes only
Least privilege
Separation of duties
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Question 40 (5 points)
Which of the following specifies the authorization
classification of information asset an individual user is permitted to access,
subject to the need-to-know principle?
Question 40 options:
Task-based access controls
Discretionary access controls
Sensitivity levels
Security clearances
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